2022年江苏高考英语试卷和答案

更新时间:2023-05-07 11:53:30 阅读: 评论:0

2022年江苏⾼考英语试卷和答案
  ⾼考进⾏时,仿佛感受到了考⽣们在考场上热⽕朝天的厮杀。考试结束的第⼀时间,⼩编就把真题给密切关注⾼考的⼩伙伴们送上。下⾯是由店铺编辑为⼤家整理的“2022年江苏⾼考英语试卷和答案”,仅供参考,欢迎⼤家阅读本⽂。
  2022年普通⾼等学校招⽣全国统⼀考试
  英语
  本试卷共10页,满分120分。考试⽤时120分钟。
  注意事项:1. 答卷前,考⽣务必⽤⿊⾊字迹例笔或签字笔将⾃⼰的姓名、考⽣号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。⽤2B铅笔将试卷类型(A)填涂在答题卡相应位置上。将条形码横贴在答题卡右上⾓“条形码粘贴处”。因笔试不考听⼒,选择题从第⼆部分的“阅读”开始,试题序号从“21”开始。
  2. 作答选择题时,选出每⼩题答案后,⽤2B船笔把答题卡上对应题⽬选项的答案信息点涂⿊;如需改动,⽤像⽪擦⼲净后,再选涂其他答案,答案不能答在试卷上。
  3. ⾮选择题必须⽤⿊⾊字迹钢笔或签字笔作答,答案必须写在答题卡各题⽬指定区域内相应位置上:
如⽽改动,先则掉原来的答案,然后再写上新的答案;不准使⽤铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案⽆效。
  4. 考⽣必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后,将试卷和答题卡⼀并交回。
  第⼆部分阅读(共两节,满分50分)
  第⼀节(共15⼩题:每⼩题2.5分,满分37.5分)
  阅读下列短⽂,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
  A
  Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature
  Grading Scale
  90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.
  Essays (60%)
  Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this cour: Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2-15%; Essay 3= 15%; Essay 4 = 20%.
  Group Assignments (30%)
  Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during the cour. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and cour management system.
  Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Test/Group Work/Homework (10%)
  n Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class’ lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.
  Late Work
  An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lo a letter grade for each class period it is lat
e. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings misd as a result of an excud abnce will be accepted.
  21. Where is this text probably taken from?
A. A textbook.
B. An exam paper.
C. A cour plan.
D. An academic article.
  22. How many parts is a student’s final grade made up of?
A. Two.
B. Three.
C. Four.
D. Five.
  23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?
A. You will receive a zero.
B. You will lo a letter grade.
C. You will be given a test.
D. You will have to rewrite it.
  B
  Like most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The arugula (芝⿇菜) was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days pasd, the arugula went bad. Even wor, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I could have made six salads with what I threw out.
  In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, “food waste goes against the moral grain,” as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month’s cover story. It’s jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away - from “ugly” (but quite eatable) vegetables rejected by grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.
  Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other resources ud to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem. In fact, Royte writes, “if food waste were a country, it would be the third largest producer of greenhou gas in the world.”
  If that’s hard to understand, let’s keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin es my arugula story all the time - but for him, it’s more like 12 boxes of donated strawberries nearing their last days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington. D.C., which recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished (有瑕疵的) produce that otherwi would have rotted in fields. And the strawberries? Volunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for u in meals down the road.
  Such methods em obvious, yer so often we just don’t think. “Everyone can play a part in reduci
ng waste, whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won’t eat.” Curtin says.
  24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?
A. We pay little attention to food waste.
B. We waste food unintentionally at times.
C. We waste more vegetables than meat.
D. We have good reasons for wasting food.
  25. What is a conquence of food waste according to the text?
A. Moral decline.
B. Environmental harm.
C. Energy shortage.
D. Worldwide starvation.
  26. What does Curtin’s company do?
A. It produces kitchen equipment.
B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.
C. It helps local farmers grow fruits.
D. It makes meals out of unwanted food.
  27. What does Curtin suggest people do?
A. Buy only what is needed.
B. Reduce food consumption.
C. Go shopping once a week.
D. Eat in restaurants less often.
  C
  The elderly residents (居民) in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.  The project was dreamed up by a local charity (慈善组织) to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people’s wellbeing. It is also being ud to help patients suffering dementia, a rious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the u of medicine where hens are in u.
  Among tho taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said: “I ud to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school.
  “I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to e they’ve gone to bed.
  “It’s good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to e the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I’m enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something uful.”
  There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.
  Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the project, said: “Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative ssions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here.”
  Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: “We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities.”
  28. What is the purpo of the project?
A. To ensure harmony in care homes.
B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.
C. To rai money for medical rearch.
D. To promote the elderly people’s welfare.
  29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?
A. She has learned new life skills.
B. She has gained a n of achievement.
C. She has recovered her memory.
D. She has developed a strong personality.
  30. What do the underlined words “embark on” mean in paragraph 7?
A. Improve.
B. Oppo.
C. Begin.
D. Evaluate.
  31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?
A. It is well received.
B. It needs to be more creative.
C. It is highly profitable.
D. It takes ages to e the results.
  D
  Human speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the common “m”and “a” to the rare clicks of some southern African languages. But why are certain sounds more common than others? A ground-breaking, five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to new speech sounds that are now found in half the world’s languages.
  More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals, such as “f” and “v”, were more common in the languages of societies that ate softer foods. Now a team of rearchers led by Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has found how and why this trend aro.
  They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned (对齐), making it hard to produce labiodentals, which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws changed to an overbite structure (结构), making it easier to produce such sounds.
  The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to chew at this point. The jawbone didn’t have to do as much work and so didn’t grow to be so large.
  Analys of a language databa also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the u of “f” and “v” increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years. The sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer people today.
  This rearch overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were prent when human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. “The t of speech sounds we u has not necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural evolution,” said Steven Moran, a member of the rearch team.
  32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi’s rearch focus on?
A. Its variety.
B. Its distribution.
C. Its quantity.
D. Its development.
  33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals?
  A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.
  B. They could not open and clo their lips easily.
  C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.
  D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.
  34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?
  A. Supporting evidence for the rearch results.
  B. Potential application of the rearch findings.
  C. A further explanation of the rearch methods.
  D. A reasonable doubt about the rearch process.
  35. What does Steven Moran say about the t of human speech sounds?
A. It is key to effective communication.
B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.
C. It is a complex and dynamic system.
D. It drives the evolution of human beings.
  第⼆节(共5⼩题:每⼩题2.5分。满分12.5分)
  阅读下⾯短⽂,从短⽂后的选项中选出可以填⼊空⽩处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
  Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled “Five Reasons to Thank Your Workout Partner.” One reason was: “You’ll actually show up if you know someone is waiting for you at the gym,” while another read: “ 36 ” With a workout partner,you will increa your training effort as there is a subtle (微妙) competition.
  So, how do you find a workout partner?
  First of all, decide what you want from that person. 37 Or do you just want to be physically fit, able to move with strength and flexibility? Think about the exercis you would like to do with your workout partner.
  You might think about posting what you are looking for on social media, but it probably won’t result in a uful respon. 38 If you plan on working out in a gym, that person must belong to the same gym.
  My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her notice included what kind of training she wanted to do, how many days a week and how many hours she wanted to spend on each ssion, and her age. It also listed her favorite sports and activities, and provided her phone number. 39
  You and your partner will probably have different skills. 40 Over time, both of you will benefit-your partner will be able to lift more weights and you will become more physically fit. The core (核⼼) of your relationship is that you will always be there to help each other.
  A. Your first meeting may be a little awkward.
  B. A workout partner usually needs to live clo by.
  C. You'll work harder if you train with someone el.
  D. Do you want to be a better athlete in your favorite sport?
  E. How can you write a good "eking training partner" notice?
  F. Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other.
  G. Any notice for a training partner should include such information.
  第三部分语⾔运⽤(共两节,满分30分)
  第⼀节(共15⼩题:每⼩题1分,满分15分)
  阅读下⾯短⽂,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填⼊空⽩处的最佳选项。
  My husband, our children and I have had wonderful camping experiences over the past ten years.
  Some of our 41 are funny, especially from the early years when our children were little. Once, w
e 42 along Chalk Creek. I was 43 that our 15-month-old boy would fall into the creek (⼩溪). I tied a rope around his waist to keep him near to our spot. That lasted about ten minutes. He was 44 , and his crying let the whole campground know it. So 45 tying him up, I just kept a clo eye on him. It 46 -he didn’t end up in the creek. My three-year-old, however, did.
  Another time, we rented a boat in Vallecito Lake. The sky was clear when we 47 , but storms move in fast in the mountains, and this one quickly 48 our peaceful morning trip. The 49 picked up and thunder rolled. My husband stopped fishing to 50 the motor. Nothing. He tried again. No 51 . We were stuck in the middle of the lake with a dead motor. As we all sat there 52 , a fisherman pulled up, threw us a rope and towed (拖) us back. We were 53 .
  Now, every year when my husband pulls our camper out of the garage, we are filled with a n of 54 , wondering what camping fun and 55 we will experience next.
  41. A. ideas B. jokes C. memories D. discoveries
  42. A. camped B. drove C. walked D. cycled
  43. A. annoyed B. surprid C. disappointed D. worried
  44. A. unhurt B. unfortunate C. uncomfortable D. unafraid
  45. A. due to B. instead of C. apart from D.as for
  46. A. worked B. happened C. mattered D. changed
  47. A. signed up B. calmed down C. checked out D. headed off
  48. A. arranged B. interrupted C. completed D. recorded
  49. A. wind B. noi C. temperature D. speed
  50. A. find B. hide C. start D. fix
  51. A. luck B. answer C. wonder D. signal
  52. A. patiently B. tirelessly C. doubtfully D. helplessly
  53. A. sorry B. brave C. safe D. right
  54. A. relief B. duty C. pride D. excitement
  55. A. failure B. adventure C. performance D. conflict
  第⼆节(共10⼩题;每⼩题1.5分,满分15分)
  阅读下⾯短⽂,在空⽩处填⼊1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
  The Chine government recently finalized a plan to t up a Giant Panda National Park (GPNP). 56 (cover) an area about three times 57 size of Yellowstone National Part, the GPNP will be one of the first national park in the country. The plan will extend protection to a significant number of areas that 58 (be) previously unprotected, bringing many of the existing protected areas for giant pandas under one authority 59 (increa) effectiveness and reduce inconsistencies in management.
  After a three-year pilot period, the GPNP will be officially t up next year. The GPNP 60 (design) to reflect the guiding principle of "protecting the authenticity and integrity (完整性) of natural ecosystems, prerving biological diversity, protecting ecological buffer zones, 61 leaving behind precious natural asts (资产) for future generations". The GPNP's main goal is to improve connectivity between parate 62 (population)and homes of giant pandas,
and 63 (eventual) achieve a desired level of population in the wild.
  Giant pandas also rve 64 an umbrella species (物种), bringing protection to a host of plants and animals in the southwestern and northwestern parts of China. The GPNP is intended to provide stronger protection for all the
species 65 live within the Giant Panda Range and significantly improve the health of the ecosystem in the area.

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